山东省泰安市2019-2020学年高一下学期期末考试英语试题(原卷版).docx

注意事项：

1. 答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、考生号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。

2. 回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改

动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本 试卷上无效。

3. 考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。

第一部分听力（共两节，满分30分）

做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂 到答题卡上。

第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7. 5分）

听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项, 并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一 小题。每段对话仅读一遍。

1. What does the man say about the TV drama?

A. Ifs too long. B. Ifs not interesting. C. There are lots of ads.

2. When will Bob get to Amy's house?

A. At 11:20. B. At 10:20. C. At 10:00.

3. What kind of music does the man like?

A. Jazz. B. Rock. C. Opera.

4. Where will the speakers go?

A. To the seaside. B. To a playground. C. To a swimming pool.

5. How old is the woman now?

A. Sixteen years old. B. Fifteen years old. C. Eleven years old.

第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22. 5分）

听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中 选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题， 每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听下面一段对话，回答第6和第7两个小题。

A. Work hard. B. Go to Ireland. C. Pay for the woman's vacation.

7.

What does the woman think of her trip last year?

A. It cost a lot. B. It wasn't fun enough. C. It made her exhausted.

听下面一段对话，回答第8至第10三个小题。 8.

What does the man think of the paining?

A. Ifs silly. B. Ifs beautiful. C. Ifs quite complex.

9.

What does the man mean in the end?

A. He already ate. B. He's also hungry. C. He agrees about the painting.

10. Where does this conversation probably take place?

A. In a classroom. B. In an art gallery. C. In an art supply store.

听下面一段对话，回答第11至第13三个小题。 11. Who is the woman?

A. A chef. B. Another customer. C. An employee at a grocery store.

12. What did the man want to buy in the beginning?

A. Green peppers. B. Tomatoes. C. Potatoes.

13. What is the man unsure of?

A. How much to spend. B. How to cook something. C. Where to find the vegetables.

听下面一段对话，回答第14至第16三个小题。 14. What did the man just do?

A. He took a hot shower. B. He cleaned his room. C. He reserved a hotel.

15. Why does the man's upper back need some work?

A. He lifted weights. B. He moved some rocks. C. He moved a bookcase.

16. What will the speakers get if they take the survey?

A. An extra trip. B. A free dinner. C. A free airplane ticket.

听下面一段独白，回答第17至第20四个小题。 17. After the concert, how did the speaker get back home?

A. By car. B. By bike. C. On foot.

18. Why couldn't the speaker get into her house?

A. She lost her key. B. Her key was inside. C. The lock was broken.

19. How did the speaker plan to get into her house?

A. Through the window. B. By calling the police. C. By breaking down the door.

20. What did the police see inside the house?

A. A thief. B. Some photos. C. The house key.

第二部分阅读理解（共两节，满分50分）

第一节（共15小题；每小题2. 5分，满分37.5分）

阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。

A

Music, nature and picnics in the sun: here are the best operas to catch this summer.

Opera Holland Park, London

For a mixture of urban and country operas, this open-air theatre is built each summer right in the heart of one of the most quiet parks of London.

Book early as tickets sell out fast, and remember to bring a wrap or blanket to keep yourself warm on chillier summer evenings!

July 4 to August 3, operahollandpark.com

Glyndebourne Festival Opera, East Sussex

Glyndeboume is one of the oldest opera festivals in the world. It attracts some of the world's greatest artists. Besides, the festival's the perfect occasion to put on your black tie or evening dress, enjoy a long picnic during the 90-minute interval （|可8鬲）.Summer festivals don't get better than this.

July 8 to August 25, glyndebourne.com

The Grange Festival, Hampshire

Surrounded by lots of green plants and overseeing a picturesque lake The Grange Festival in Hampshire is certain to be one of the most impressive visual feasts （视觉盛宴）you'll ever see.

Arrive a bit early to take in the countryside views. During the lengthy interval, you511 enjoy a romantic dinner—an essential part of the festival.

July 6 to August 6, thegrangefestival.co.uk

Grange Park Opera, Surrey

Though ifs relatively new, the festival attracts some of the world's top talent and this year's edition is no different, featuring performances by one of the world's most charming mezzo-sopranos, Joyce DiDonato, and the charismatic baritone Simon Keenlyside.

July 6 to August 13, grangeparkopera.co.uk 1. What should you do if you go to Opera Holland Park?

A. Put on your best dress. C. Enjoy a romantic dinner.

B. Book tickets early. D. Perform on the stage.

2. Which of the following may have the most beautiful natural environment? A. Opera Holland Park. C. The Grange Festival.

3. What is the purpose of author in writing the text? A. To attract more visitors to Britain. C. To advertise some places of interest.

B. To inform you of traveling destinations. D. To introduce British opera festivals. B. Grange Park Opera.

D. Glyndebourne Festival Opera.

B

Melanie was born with spina bifida, a condition that rid her of the ability to walk. All her life, she had been using a wheelchair to get around. Trevor, on the other hand, has been blind since he was born.

The two ran into each other at an adaptive rock climbing class. They soon learned that they shared a common love for nature. Knowing all of this, the pair came up with a brilliant idea—with their strengths combined, they would climb the mountains of Colorado together!

Before the start of each journey, Melanie, secure in carrier, is hoisted by a friend or a fellow hiker onto Trevor's back. Her role is to give verbal directions to her partner as they pass through the trail. \"I describe everything I see and exactly how Trevor needs to move,^, Melanie said of their hiking method. t4It just seemed like common sense,9, she told Good Morning America. \"He's the legs, Tm the eyes一boom! Together, we're the dream team,^^

To them, the best part about hiking as a pair is that they get to give each other the chance to accomplish something that others might believe is impossible.

“It made me so happy to help someone experience what I've been able to experience my whole life. Just getting on top of a mountain, you just feel that sense of accomplishment. The best part is being able to make her smile. That gives me purpose/5 Trevor said.

As for Melanie, she says that the activity also gives her the feeling of freedom. \"Tve been in a wheelchair my whole life, and ifs an amazing feeling to leave it miles behind on the trail. I even couldn,t get in it if I wanted to, and thafs a great feeling,she said.

4. What do we know about Melanie and Trevor? A They are born disabled.

B. They are good at sports.

C. They show no interest in outdoor activities. D. They've known each other since they were bom.

5. Which of the following can best replace the underlined word \"hoisted\" in paragraph 3? A. Caught.

B. Lifted.

C. Removed.

D. Pushed.

6. What does Trevor think of hiking with Melanie? A. He thinks it meaningful.

C. He thinks the experience amusing. 7. Whafs the topic of the text?

A Two people worked together as a team.

B. Hiking as a pair proved to be successful. B. He gets the feeling of freedom. D. He feels it his duty to help Melanie.

C. Two disabled teamed up for hiking adventures. D. A blind man helped a woman who couldn't walk.

C

Can you think of a day without music? We can hear music everywhere: in the streets and at home, over the radio and on TV, in the shops and in the parks. People all over the world are fond of music. They listen to music, they dance to music, and they learn to play musical instruments.

Music isn't' only combination of pleasant sounds. It is an art which reflects life. There are lot of different kinds of music. Some of them appeared long ago, and some are modem. Folk music appeared long ago, but it is still alive. Folk songs are very pleasant to listen to. Classical music is often associated with the music of the past. Rap is a modem musical style where the singer speaks or shouts the words in time to music with a steady beat.

Great Britain has produced more popular music stars than any other country. British groups often set new trends in music. New styles, groups and singers continue to appear. Many of the new bands have been able to use changes in technology to develop their music such as computerised drum machines, synthesisers and other electronic instruments.

Tastes differ. So people's musical interests range from pop and rock music to classical music and opera. My favourite style of music is pop music, because it is full of energy. When I listen to pop music it makes me remember happy times and forget the problems of everyday life. I also enjoy listening to classical music. The music I hate is heavy metal, I find it noisy. When I listen to this style of music it presents to my mind pictures of dark days. My mother and father agree with my tastes in music. Though they prefer to listen to classical, they think that modern music is not too bad.

Music appeals to our hearts. It comforts our souls and enriches our minds. Music is beauty in sounds; it is our magic source of inspiration.

8. What is the first paragraph mainly about?

A. Several types of music. C. The development of musical styles.

B. Different musical tastes.

D. The importance of music in our lives.

9. How is the second paragraph developed?

A. By giving examples. C. By describing courses.

10. Why does the author like pop music?

A. It is played with electronic instruments.

B. By analysing reasons. D. By making comparisons.

B. It is characterised by a steady beat.

C. It is loud and strong. D. It sounds energetic.

911. What is the author's parents attitude towards his musical taste?

A. Doubtful. C. Dissatisfied.

B. Supportive. D. Unconcerned.

D

If you've ever wondered what the process of becoming an astronaut is like, Kennedy Space Center Visitor Complex

(KSCVC) now has an experience that puts visitors in the shoes of a space explorer in training. The center's Astronaut Training Experience (ATE), features four simulations (模拟).They all require teamwork and good communication.

Dee Maynard, manager of education programs at KSCVC, said the experience was designed to keep visitors involved the whole time. \"When we were designing this, one of our concerns was that we wanted to be having an experience and not waiting around,\" Maynard said. \"Also, astronaut training is very much a team effort.\"

Although astronauts go through thousands of hours of training before taking off for space, this training does include some parts that are similar to those of real NASA training.

One simulation helps visitors learn what it takes to launch NASA's Space Launch System rocket. Six people step into the role of launch control and communicate with six others on the Orion capsule.

Visitors take turns reading and passing instructions and sets of data from both sides. In mission control (地面才旨

挥中心、)，they can step into roles including flight director and spacecraft systems officer. Inside the capsule, people try their hand at such jobs as flight engineer and commander.

Across the room, there are chairs that are similar to the kind of zero gravity chair. With the press of a switch, the chairs fly across a special floor, giving astronauts-in-training an experience that somewhat simulates the zero gravity environment of space. This part of the experience also offers visitors a chance to learn about the management about sleeping, using the toilet and working in space.

Two simulations help participants experience what life on Mars might look like. 12. What are the qualities most required for the astronaut training at KSCVC? ①Working together. ③Data analyzing.

©Reading skills. ©Communication skills.

A.①③ B.①④ C.②③ D.②④

13 How might people feel when they take part in ATE? A. Busy.

B. Bored.

C. Worried.

D. Comfortable.

14. We can conclude in the paragraph that follows. A. the readers will get to know more about roles in space. B. the zero gravity environment of space will be described. C. the author might introduce NASA's Space Launch System. D. the \"land and drive on Mars\" simulators might be talked about. 15. What would be the best title for the text? A. Explore the Future of Space B. Realize Your Dream at KSCVC C. Experience Life as an Astronaut D. Make Yourself a Great Astronaut

第二节（共5小题；每小题2. 5分，满分12. 5分）

阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选 项。

When you've finished your studies at school and college, do you feel like a well-earned rest? If you're about to take up a course at university, you'll want to recharge your batteries and have some fun. But how long should you do that for? 16 A year off—also called a gap year—is a period of time when a student takes a break before going to university. 17 But there5s now a fbcus on making the most of this break from academic life. Long gone are the days of just hanging out on a beach or traveling abroad. 18 Doing something productive is exactly what students are being encouraged to do because doing more purposeful things helps them acquire skills to use when competing for a place at university.

19 A student, Tom, told the BBC \"it would have been too expensive and ifs not something that I would have been able to rely on my parents or family members fbr.\" But some experts say that it needn,t bum a hole in your pocket. You don't need to travel far and you can even earn money by doing paid work.

For those who do have the funds, a combination of working, volunteering and travelling is undoubtedly an amazing opportunity. 20 It also gives you time to think whether university is right for you. A. Ifs not a new idea.

B. It is important to have fun.

C. Now the idea of taking a year off seems to be the thing to do. D. There9s a common thought that gap years are only for rich students E. A gap year is now more about gaining skills that will help you in later life. F.

It increases confidence and independence and gives you a chance to learn new skills.

G. While the benefits of taking a gap year are clear, some students worry they can't afford it.

第三部分语言运用（共两节，满分30分）

第一节 完形填空（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）

阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。

It is every kid's worst nightmare （梦魔）and six-year-old Jaden Hayes has lived it twice. First, he 21 his dad when he was four and then last month his mom died unexpectedly, 22 Jaden is understandably heartbroken. But there ,s another side to his 23 him an orphan （孤JL）. . A side he first made

24 three weeks ago when he told his friends that he was tired of seeing some people sad all the time. And he had a plan to 25 it. Here is how it all 26 . Jaden asked his aunt to buy a bunch of little

27 and take him to downtown Savannah to give them away. He 28 people who aren't already smiling and then turns their day around, expecting 29 in return—but a smile.

So far he has gone out on four different occasions and 30 nearly 500 smiles. Sometimes it simply confuses some people 31 a six-year-old would give them a toy. They behaved awkwardly at first: stepping back or giving a 32 smile. In most cases, however, he will be paid in nervous hugs. Those good reactions have worked wonders: the more people that he made smile, the more 33 came out of him. For Jaden, he would 34 his parents with each passing day. He puts smiles back on the face of others to lift their 35

21. A. saw 22. A. finding 23. A. interest

. He reminds us too, that however tough life can be, there is always some measure of joy.

B. lost B. leaving B. puzzle B. short B. enjoy B. ended B. toys

C.saved C. proving C. delight C. public C. achieve C. changed C. books

D.

recognized

D. seeing

D.sadness D. available D. finish D. helped D. keys

24. A. safe

25. A. fix 26. A. began 27. A. flowers

28. A. asks 29. A. anything 30. A. shared 31. A. why 32. A. warm 33. A. joy 34. A. visit 35. A. sounds

B. loves B. something B. claimed B. how B. wide B.envy B. miss B. hands

C. targets C. everything C.exchanged C. when C. tight C. doubt C. tell C. spirits

D.

believes

D. nothing

D.

collected

D. where D. sweet

D.

surprise

D. search D. eyes

第二节(共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分)

阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。

People send birthday wishes using cards and postcards in many cultures. Ifs not known when and where the tradition of 36 (send) birthday cards began, however, it is believed 37 it was in England in the early nineteenth century. In those days people sent birthday cards because they couldn't wish somebody 38 happy birthday in person. In 1840, the first postage stamp was issued in Britain and sending birthday cards became 39 (cheap) and therefore more popular. The 40 (develop) of colour printing processes in the 1930s also helped to increase sales of cards. Today usually cards 41 (give) with a present, even when people can send 42 (they) wishes in person. In recent times, e-cards have also become popular: many people are starting to use these instead of traditional cards as they are free, environmentally 43 (friend) and arrive more quickly. So will e-cards take the place 44 paper cards in ten or twenty years? Probably not. For young children and old people or for very formal occasions, e-cards are not proper and some people 45(simple) don't use the Internet.

第四部分 写作(共三节，满分40分) 第一节 单词拼写(共5小

题；每小题1分，满分5分)

46. To my delight, I am given the o to perform alone on video.(根据首字母单词拼写)

47. We can visit you on Saturday or Sunday; our plans are fairly(灵活的).(根据汉语提示单词拼写) 48. It suddenly o to me that we could use a computer to do the job (根据首字母单词拼写)

49. The doctor told me to take the medicine（定时地）three times a day.（根据汉语提示单词拼写） 50. Remember to get your battery（充电）before setting off from the camping ground. （I艮据汉语提示

单词拼写）

第二节 汉译英（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 51. 坦率地说，我和姐姐没有任何共同点。（汉译英） 52. 唐人街是美国多元文化的一个重要组成部分。（汉译英）

53. 伟大音乐家创作的美好音乐，可帮助人们度过艰难时光。（汉译英） . 用网络和朋友保持联系是很方便的。（汉译英）

55. 作为回报，他乐意将所有的钱捐给慈善机构。（汉译英） 第三节 书面表达（满分25分）

56. 假定你是李华，为走进自然，了解文化，增强体质，你校将在暑假期间组织到泰山进行研学旅行

（educational excursion）□请给你校外教Peter写封邮件，邀请他参加。内容包括：

1. 活动目的； 2. 具体安排。

注意：1.词数100词左右；

2. 可适当增加细节，以使行文连贯； 3. 开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数。