北京师范大学学士学位英语考试样题(笔试)艺

北京师范大学学士学位英语考试样题（笔试）-艺术体育类

院（系） 专 业 级 姓 名 学 号 准考证号

Part Ⅰ Listening Comprehension (20 minutes) (20 points) Section A

Directions: In this section, you will hear 10 short conversations. At the end of each conversation,

a question will be asked about what was said. Both the conversation and the question will be spoken only once. After each question, there will be a pause. During the pause, you must read the four choices marked A), B), C) and D), and decide which is the best answer. Then mark the corresponding letter on the Answer Sheet with a single line through the center.

1. A) To Chris’ house. B) To a meeting room. C) To the club.

D) To the post office.

2. A) She gave one or two parties.

B) She came to two parties.

C) She comes to most of their parties. D) She missed most of their parties.

3. A) There aren't enough potatoes for everyone else. B) The woman has to think about her request.

C) The woman has more potatoes than the man has. D) The woman shouldn't eat any more potatoes. 4. A) 12:15. B) 1:00. C) 1:10. D) 12:30.

5. A) The woman should invite the policeman. B) The sports center is near the police station. C) The policeman probably is a sportsman.

D) He doesn't know the way to the sports center. 6. A) Help her with some heavy work. B) Arrange a place for her to stay. C) Go away for the weekend. D) Give her his spare change. 7. A) The party lasted all night. B) She didn't go to Susan's party. C) She didn't like the party.

D) The party was put off. 8. A) $3.75. B) $3.25. C) $7.50. D) $15.00.

9. A) He's surprised he couldn't find the hotel. B) He often gets lost.

C) He doesn't know where the hotel is. D) He'd rather go to another hotel. 10. A) The man should come back later.

B) The man must complete some paperwork. C) The man's application has been lost. D) The man is not qualified for the job. 

Section B

Directions: In this section, you will hear 3 short passages. At the end of each passage, you will hear some questions. Both the passage

and the questions will be spoken only once. After you hear a question, you must choose the best answer from the four choices marked A), B), C) and D). Then mark the corresponding letter on the Answer Sheet with a single line through the center.

Passage One Questions 11 to 13 are based on the passage you have just heard. 11. A) They like music.

B) They want to give information. C) They feel happy.

D) They are in a good temper. 12. A) To warn them to keep away.

B) To look for a wife. C) To welcome them.

D) To tell them there’s an enemy. 13. A) It keeps other birds away.

B) It attracts female birds. C) It makes its home. D) It likes flowers.

Passage Two Questions 14 to 16 are based on the passage you have just heard. 14. A) Find out what caused the tides.

B) Study the nature of light. C) Invent the first telescope. D) Develop the calculus.

15. A) He became bottom of his class.

B) He laughed at that boy.

C) He became angry and fought back. D) He believed he was lazy and stupid.

16. A) Wools Thorpe University.

B) Grantham University. C) Cambridge University. D) Oxford University.

Passage Three Questions 17 to 20 are based on the passage you have just heard. 17. A) The first environmentally friendly Games.

B) The first modernized Games. C) The most successful Games. D) The first high-tech Games. 18. A) Rainwater.

B) Lake water. C) River water.

D) Underground water.

19. A) They get to the Games by air.

B) They get to the Games by bicycle. C) They get to the Games using cars. D) They get to the Games by bus or train. 20. A) By using wind power.

B) By using water power. C) By using nuclear power. D) By using solar power. Section C

Directions: In this part, you will hear a short passage three times. When it is read for the first time, you should listen carefully for the

main idea. When you listen to the passage again, try to fill in the 10 blanks. There is a pause in the recording after each

clause containing a blank to allow you time to write down the exact words. Finally, check what you have written down when the passage is read for the third time.

An essay consists of three kinds of paragraphs. The support paragraphs form___(1) ___of the essay. These support paragraphs offer____(2)____ that the thesis statement is valid. Each support paragraph begins with a topic sentence that ____(3) ____to be made in that paragraph to the thesis of the essay. The topic sentence is, of course, followed by support sentences which ____(4)____ the topic sentence. An essay will usually have as many support paragraphs as the writer has points of proof. A writer who thinks that he has three reasons why ____(5)____ will write an essay with three support paragraphs, one for _____(6)____reasons. An essay also has _____(7)____ paragraphs, the introductory paragraph and the concluding paragraph. The introductory paragraph acquaints the reader with _____(8)_____and grabs his attention. One or more of its concluding sentences presents the thesis. The concluding paragraph gives the reader _____(9)_____. It sums up what has gone before and reminds the reader _____(10)_____of the thesis, the essay’s main point.

Part II Reading Comprehension (35 minutes) ( 40 points)

Directions: There are 4 passages in this part. Each passage is followed by some questions or unfinished statements. For each of them

there are four choices marked A), B), C), and D). You should decide on the best choice and mark the corresponding letter on the Answer Sheet with a single line through the centre.

Questions 21 to 25 are based on the following passage:

Where do pesticides (杀虫剂) fit into the picture of environmental disease? We have seen that they now pollute soil, water, and food, that they have the power to make our streams fishless and our gardens and woodlands silent and birdless. Man, however much he may like to pretend the contrary, is part of nature. Can he escape a pollution that is now so thoroughly distributed throughout our world?

We know that even single exposures to these chemicals, if the amount is large enough, can cause extremely severe poisoning. But this is not the major problem. The sudden illness or death of farmers, farm workers, and others exposed to sufficient quantities of pesticides is very sad and should not occur. For the population as a whole, we must be more concerned with the delayed effects of absorbing small amounts of the pesticides that invisibly pollute our world.

Responsible public health officials have pointed out that the biological effects of chemicals are cumulative (积累的) over long periods of time, and that the danger to the individual may depend on the sum of the exposures received throughout his lifetime. For these very reasons the danger is easily ignored. It is human nature to shake off what may seem to us a threat of future disaster. “Men are naturally most impressed by diseases which have obvious signs,” says a wise physician, Dr. Rene Dubos, “yet some of their worst enemies slowly approach them unnoticed.”

21. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the sentence “Man ,…, is part of nature.” (Para.1)?

A) Man appears indifferent to what happens in nature. B) Man acts as if he does not belong to nature.

C) Man can avoid the effects of environmental pollution.

D) Man can escape his responsibilities for environmental protection.

22. What is the author’s attitude towards the environmental effects of pesticides?

A) Pessimistic. B) Indifferent. C) Defensive. D) Concerned.

23. In the author’s view, the sudden death caused by exposure to large amounts of pesticides _____.

A) is not the worst of the negative consequences resulting from the use of pesticides B) now occurs most frequently among all accidental deaths

C) has sharply increased so as to become the center of public attention D) is unavoidable because people can’t do without pesticides in farming

24. People tend to ignore the delayed effects of exposure to chemicals because ______.

A) limited exposure to them does little harm to people’s health B) the present is more important for them than the future C) the danger does not become apparent immediately

D) humans are capable of withstanding small amounts of poisoning 25. It can be concluded from Dr Dubos’ remarks that ______.

A) people find invisible diseases difficult to deal with B) attacks by hidden enemies tend to be fatal C) diseases with obvious signs are easy to cure

D) people tend to overlook hidden dangers caused by pesticides

Questions 26 to 30 are based on the following passage:

When a consumer finds that an item she or he bought is faulty or in some other way does not live up to the manufacturer’s claim for it, the first step is to present the warranty, or any other records which might help, at the store of purchase. In most cases, this action will produce results. However, if it does not, there are various means the consumer may use to gain satisfaction.

A simple and common method used by many consumers is to complain directly to the store manager. In general, “the higher up, the consumer takes his or her complaint, the faster he or she can expect it to be settled”. In such a case, it is usually settled in the consumer’s favor, assuming he or she has a just claim.

Consumers should complain in person whenever possible, but if they cannot get to the place of purchase, it is acceptable to phone or write the complaint in a letter. Complaining is usually most effective when it is done politely but firmly, and especially when the consumer can demonstrate what is wrong with the item in question. If this cannot be done, the consumer will succeed best by presenting specific information as to what is wrong, rather than by making general statements. For example, “The left speaker does not work at all and the sound coming out of the right one is unclear” is better than “This stereo does not work.”

The store manager may advise the consumer to write to the manufacturer. If so, the consumer should do this, stating the complaint as politely and as firmly as possible. But if a polite complaint does not achieve the desired result, the consumer can go a step further. She or he can threaten to take the seller to court or report the seller to a private or public organization responsible for protecting consumers’ rights.

26. When a consumer finds that his purchase has a fault in it, the first thing he should do is to _____.

A) complain personally to the manager B) threaten to take the matter to court

C) write a firm letter of complaint to the store of purchase D) show the written proof of the purchase to the store

27. If a consumer wants a quick settlement of his problem, it’s better to complain to _____.

A) a shop assistant B) the store manager C) the manufacturer D) a public organization

28. The most effective complaint can be made by _____.

A) showing the faulty item to the manufacturer B) explaining exactly what is wrong with the item C) saying firmly that the item is of poor quality D) asking politely to change the item

29. The phrase “live up to” (Para.1) in the context means _____.

A) meet the standard of B) realize the purpose of C) fulfill the demands of D) keep the promise of 30. The passage tells us _____.

A) how to settle a consumer’s complaint about a faulty item B) how to make an effective complaint about a faulty item C) how to avoid buying a faulty item

D) how to deal with complaints from customers

Questions 31 to 35 are based on the following passage:

There were several reasons why the Industrial Revolution started in Great Britain rather than in France, the other great powers of the day. In the first place, Britain had the money necessary to finance the larger enterprises. England’s supremacy on the seas had encouraged commerce, and Englishmen had been amassing wealth through their commerce and industry. The newly rich class in that country were not

the aristocratic（贵族的）group, but merchants and businessmen who were willing to devote themselves to industry and scientific agriculture. The wealth of France, on the other hand, was largely in the hands of the nobility, and they were not willing to do the necessary work to develop industry. In the second place, Great Britain had undertaken very early the manufacturing of inexpensive and more practical products for which there would be ever-growing demand from the people, especially the new middle class. On the other hard, France produced articles in the luxury class. These could never be turned out in quantities because they demanded individuality. England was the producer of goods that were produced in quantities, and if she could find a cheaper means of producing them, her markets would grow. So she was ready for methods that would make it possible to manufacture in large quantities. In the third place, for a long time England had large numbers of semiskilled workers. When the feudal system broke down in England and the manors were turned to sheep raising, numbers of Englishmen went to the towns. There they engaged in weaving, making shows, wood carving and many other occupations that developed skills. When the industrial revolution began, these men were available for the work on the new machines. Moreover they were free men who could move from place to place as the need for workers arose. This had not been the case in France, which was still chiefly an agricultural country with peasants bound to their masters in many ways so they could not easily move to the cities. In the fourth place, coal was abundant in Great Britain, and a large amount of this cheap fuel was necessary for running the factories. There was coal in northern France, too, but France was late in tapping (开发) such resources because really everyone depended directly or indirectly on farming for his living.

31. Britain had the money necessary to develop industry because _____.

A) Britain was much wealthier than France at that time

B) Britain government encouraged the development of industry

C) the merchants and businessmen were willing to finance the industry D) the aristocratic group was willing to develop the industry

32. According to the passage, French people attached importance to _____.

A) the quantities of the articles B) the individuality of the articles C) the practicality of the articles D) the price of the articles

33. Which of the following statements is true?

A) The wealth of France was largely in the hands of new middle class. B) French people were bound to the new machines.

C) France was more likely to produce goods in qualities.

D) France could not get free workers necessary to the industry. 34. When the industrial revolution began, Englishmen _____.

A) were busy amassing wealth through commerce and industry

B) had found a cheaper means of producing goods needed in qualities C) depended on farming for their living

D) could move from place to place as the need for workers arose 35. What can be inferred from the passage?

A) The demand for luxury goods was limited.

B) Industrial Revolution was the result of the interaction of various factors. C) French people moved from farming to industry and commerce. D) Coal was very important to people’s life.

Questions 36 to 40 are based on the following passage:

Social change is more likely to occur in societies where there is a mixture of different kinds of people than in societies where people are similar in many ways. The simple reason for this is that there are more different ways of looking at things present in the first kind of society. There are more ideas, more disagreements in interest, and more groups and organizations with different beliefs. In addition, there is usually a greater worldly interest and greater tolerance in mixed societies. All these factors tend to promote social change by opening more areas of life to decision. In a society where people are quite similar in many ways there are fewer occasions for people to see the need or the opportunity for change because everything seems to be the same. And although conditions may not be satisfactory, they are at least customary and undisputed.

Within a society, social change is also likely to occur more frequently and more readily in the material aspects of the culture than in the non-material, for example, in technology rather than in values; in what has been learned later in life rather than what was learned early; in the less basic and less emotional aspects of society than in their opposite; in the simple elements rather than in the complex ones; in

form rather than in substance; and in elements that are acceptable to the culture rather than in strange elements.

Furthermore, social change is easier if it is gradual. For example, it comes more readily in human relations on a continuous scale rather than one with sharp dichotomies (一分为二). This is one reason why change has not come more quickly to Black Americans as compared to other American minorities, because of the sharp difference in appearance between them and their white counterparts.

36. The following factors tend to promote social change except ______.

A) different kinds of people B) different points of view C) different interest D) different conditions

37. The expression “greater tolerance” (Para. 1) refers to ______.

A) more respect for different beliefs and behaviors B) quicker adaptation to changing circumstances C) greater willingness to accept social change

D) greater readiness to agree to different opinions and ideas

38. According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE within a society?

A) Social change is less likely to occur in technology than in values. B) What people learned in their early times tends to change quickly.

C) The basic and emotional aspects of society tend to slow down social change. D) Strange elements are likely to quicken social change. 39. Social change is easier if it takes place ______.

A) step by step

B) among Black Americans

C) between Black Americans and their white counterparts D) between Black Americans and other American minorities 40. The passage is mainly discussing ______.

A) the necessity of social change

B) certain factors that determine the ease with which social change occurs C) the way to slow down social change D) how to promote social change

Part III Vocabulary and Structure (20 minutes) (15 points)

Directions: There are 30 incomplete sentences in this part. For each sentence there are four choices marked A), B), C) and D). Choose

the ONE that best completes the sentence. Then mark the corresponding letter on the Answer Sheet with a single line through the centre.

41. The medicine is on sale everywhere; you can get it at ______ chemist’s.

A) other B) some C) certain D) any 42. It is unwise to attach too much importance _____ the information.

A) to B) with C) into D) for 43. I don’t care when you mow the lawn. When you do it is______ you.

A) settled by B) all for C) up to D) all by 44. ________ it or not, this discovery has created a stir in scientific circles.

A) Believe B) To believe C) Believing D) Believed 45. The polilceman _____ his shoulder as if to say there was nothing he could do about the

matter. A) lowered B) shrugged C) lifted D) folded 46. John’s girlfriend is coming tonight and he is going to _____ her ____ at the ariport at 6:00.

A) pick... on B) pick... up C) pick...over D) pick... out 47. There are other problems which I don’t propose to ______ at the moment.

A) go into B) go around C) go for D) go up

48. He is _____ to getting up early and reading English passages in the nearby park every day.

A) accustomed B) intended C) probable D) easy 49. All the people are suspicious ____ his words because he used to be such a big liar.

A) to B) at C) on D) of

50. The student pronounced the difficult words ______ until he got them correct.

A) repeatedly B) repeat C) repeated D) repetition 51. It _____ that the jewels had been in the bank all the time.

A) turned in B) turned out C) turned over D) turned off 52. If you concentrate all your energies ___ your study of English, you will master the

language. A) at B) in C) on D) to

53. _______ he had told us the truth from the very beginning, things wouldn’t have gone so

wrong. A) If only B) Even if C) On condition that D) Given 54. Under no circumstances _______ break the law.

A) we should B) should we C) we would D) do we 55. The manager lost his _____ just because his secretary was ten minutes late.

A) mood B) temper C) mind D) passion 56. _____ his sister, Jack is quiet and does not easily make friends with others.

A) Dislike B) Unlike C) Alike D) Liking 57. The computer is greatly superior ____ the typewriter.

A) over B) than C) to D) above 58. According to ______ they have told me, they should return within about three days.

A) that B) which C) what D) /

59. I came a thousand miles to stand in this door tonight, and it’s worth it if my old partner

turns _____. A) on B) out C) up D) down 60. Haven’t you heard ___ your friend since you left?

A) from B) of C) about D) on 61. Did you _______ his lecture yesterday?

A) hear B) listen C) C) attend D) watch 62. I’m not ______ for typing, but I can learn.

A) able B) capable C) competent D) good 63. The committee is totally opposed _______ any changes being made in the plan.

A) of B) against C) on D) to 64. Linda was _____ and social ; she enjoys making friends.

A) quiet B) gregarious C) stern D) tough 65. A ___ to this problem is expected to be found before long.

A) result B) response C) settlement D) solution 66. The speaker ____ the various factors leading to the present economic crisis.

A) went after B) went for C) went into D) went on 67. The degree _____ poor nutrition affects susceptibility to colds is not yet clearly

established. A) to which B) on which C) at which D) in which 68. As we can no longer wait for the delivery of our order, we have to _____ it.

A) postpone B) refuse C) delay D) cancel 69. One day I _____ a newspaper article about the retirement of an English professor at a

nearby state college. A) came about B) came after C) came across D) came at 70. You must ask ______ if you want to leave early.

A) permit B) permissible C) permissive D) permission

Part VII Writing (30 points)

Directions: For this part, you are allowed 30 minutes to write a speech in no less than 120 words, seeking help for a certain charity event

on the topic: Volunteer Your Time. You must base your speech on the following outline.

1. 介绍该慈善或公益活动（如：义务植树或授课、临终关怀等）。 2. 参与这项活动的益处。 3. 鼓励大家踊跃参与。

Key

Part I Listening Comprehension Section A 0.5/each 5 points

1－5 A C D B D 6－10 A B C A B Section B 0.5/each 5 points

11－13 B A B 14－16 C C C 17－20 A A D D Section C 1/each 10 points

An essay consists of three kinds of paragraphs. The support paragraphs form 1. the middle or body of the essay. These support paragraphs offer 2. points of proof that the thesis statement is valid. Each support paragraph begins with a topic sentence that 3. relates the point to be made in that paragraph to the thesis of the essay. The topic sentence is, of course, followed by support sentences 4. which explain and develop the topic sentence. An essay will usually have as many support paragraphs as the writer has points of proof. A writer who thinks that he has three reasons why 5. smoking is harmful will write an essay with three support paragraphs, one for 6. each of his reasons. An essay also has 7. two other sorts of paragraphs, the introductory paragraph and the concluding paragraph. The introductory paragraph acquaints the reader with 8. the subject of the essay and grabs his attention. One or more of its concluding sentences presents the thesis. The concluding paragraph gives the reader 9. a sense of an ending. It sums up what has gone before and reminds the reader 10. for the last time of the thesis, the essay’s main point.

Part II Reading Comprehension (35 minutes)( 40 points) 21-25 BDACD 26-30 DBBAB 31-35 CBDDB

36-40 D A C A B

Part III Vocabulary and Structure (20 minutes) (15 points) 41-45 D A C A B 46-50 B A A D A 51-55 B C A B B 56-60 B C C C A 61-65 C C D B D 66-70 C A D C D